Are you preparing the CCNA 200-301 exam? Or are you wondering what questions are like in CCNA 200-301 exam? It is the right time for you to read this blog! You won’t miss it! SPOTO has collected some updated questions from CCNA 200-301 exam
for you. Let’s get started.1. Which purpose does a northbound API server in a controller-based networking architecture?
A. Communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware.
B. Reports device errors to a controller.
C. Generates statistics for network hardware and traffic.
D. Facilitates communication between the controller and the applications. Answer: D 2. How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
A. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.
B. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management.
C. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management.
D. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management. Answer: C 3. What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.
B. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network.
C. The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic.
D. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network.
E. It requires that some servers, virtual machines, and network gear reside on the Internet. Answer: AD 4. What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
A. It supports numerous extensibility options, including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.
B. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements in a brownfield deployment.
C. It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.
D. It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode. Answer: A 5. Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
D. FF00::/8 Answer: D 6. What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
A. The seventh bit of original MAC address of the interface is inverted.
B. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value.
C. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface.
D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification. Answer: A 7. What is the difference regrading reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
C. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol. Answer: C 8. Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1, which configuration accomplishes this task?
A. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route default-route 192.168.1.1
B. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1
C. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
D. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1 Answer: B 9. Which function dose the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
A. Allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts.
B. Provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network.
C. Ensues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing.
D. Enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts. Answer: A 10. A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network, which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
A. Device(config)# lldp run
B. Device(config)# cdp run
C. Device(config)# cdp enable
D. Device(config)# flow-sampler-map topology Answer: A 11.How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data; UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.
B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once; UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing.
C. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake.
D. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. Answer: B 12. Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?
A. ntp master
B. ntp sever
C. ntp authenticate
D. ntp peer Answer: A 13. Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 address
B. OSPF process ID
C. OSPF MD5 authentication key
D. OSPF stub flag
E. OSPF area Answer: BE 14. What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two.)
A. The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.
B. The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them.
C. The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses.
D. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses.
E. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically. Answer: DE 15. What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?
A. FlexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC.
B. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured.
C. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AF to the WLC.
D. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP. Answer: B 16. By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
A. It uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric.
B. It uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router.
C. It counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric.
D. It uses a reference bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric. Answer: A 17. What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.
B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table.
C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN. Answer: C 18. Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels.
B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.
D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.
E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel. Answer: CE 19. What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)
A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections.
B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding.
C. The data can pass through the cladding.
D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber.
E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections. Answer: BD 20. What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)
A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies.
B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.
C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains.
D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host.
E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions. Answer: AB 21. What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
A. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.
B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
C. It provides variable latency.
D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops. Answer: D 22. How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services, and access control?
A. Authorization provides access control, and authentication tracks user services.
B. Authentication identifies users, and accounting tracks user services.
C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control.
D. Authorization identifies users, and authentication provides access control. Answer: B 23. Which function does an SNMP agent perform?
A. It sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS.
B. It manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network.
C. It coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server.
D. It requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events. Answer: A To be continued…
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