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Cisco's new CCNA certification is one of the most popular knowledge technology applications, which has increased the value of organizations and their employees. There are many reasons why the new CCNA 200-301 exam is popular. Here are some ideas to propel professionals to obtain this certificate:
Enhance knowledge and experience
Getting a new CCNA certification can improve the level of knowledge and confidence. After receiving CCNA, the expertise that individuals will gain is extremely valuable for their careers. The new version of CCNA 200-301 provides an environment where applicants can be exposed to different situations and then obtain training, learning, and experience in related fields. The new CCNA certification can provide you with more opportunities for studying and expertise. It increases your knowledge and allows you to keep up with the latest changes or discoveries in information technology.
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The new CCNA certification is the best step to gain promotion and pave the way for your goals. It can provide a path and environment through which private personnel can enter the hierarchy and dominate the organization. The new CCNA 200-301 is like a ladder for professional development. It is a globally recognized certification, no matter where an individual goes, the pace of growth cannot be resisted. The work of the certificate holder will remain relevant in each county.
The salary of certificate holders is very high because their number is smaller, but the demand is high. Under the premise of having to have IT experts in surviving in a competitive environment, technology has dominated the entire business world. The demand for new CCNA certified personnel is inflexible, which allows them to obtain high salaries. The revolutionary changes brought about by IT, and therefore the advanced application of IT, make experts always in short supply, and certified personnel will enjoy high salaries.
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Without proper training, knowledge will not be systematically applied to a given scenario. Personnel should be adequately trained before being exposed to the working environment. The new CCNA 200-301 not only involves theoretical knowledge but also provides a wide range of training options.
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SPOTO offers the latest 200-301 exam dumps,200-301 exam Ebook, 200-301 study materials to help you pass the exam in the first try! Our materials are verified by the most authoritative CCIE experts! Want to ace the 200-301 exam smoothly? Find out SPOTO’s 100% real and valid CCNA 200-301 exam answers & questions. This blog shares the latest CCNA 200-301 exam questions and answers. Try now!
NEW QUESTION 1
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
NEW QUESTION 2
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)
A. reduced operational costs
B. reduced hardware footprint
C. faster changes with more reliable results
D. fewer network failures
E. increased network security
NEW QUESTION 3
What is the benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A. Central AP management requires more complex configurations.
B. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method.
C. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.
D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
NEW QUESTION 4
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast
B. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from the switch to switch
C. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation is accelerated when a switch link goes down.
D. After the spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
NEW QUESTION 5
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.)
NEW QUESTION 6
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?
A. TKIP with RC4
NEW QUESTION 7
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer
environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
NEW QUESTION 8
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Configure the version of SSH.
B. Configure VTY access.
C. Create a user with a password.
D. Assign a DNS domain name.
NEW QUESTION 9
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)
E. input errors
NEW QUESTION 10
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
B. administrative distance
NEW QUESTION 11
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
NEW QUESTION 12
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree port fast command?
A. It enables BPDU messages.
B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.
C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded.
D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state.
NEW QUESTION 13
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
D. mobility express
NEW QUESTION 14
Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
A. standby 10 preempt
B. standby 10 version 1
C. standby 10 priority 150
D. standby 10 version 2
NEW QUESTION 15
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two.)
A. whether the NTP peer is statically configured
B. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
C. the configured NTP servers
D. whether the clock is synchronized
E. the NTP version number of the peer
NEW QUESTION 16
Which two of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
NEW QUESTION 17
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
C. flex connect
NEW QUESTION 18
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two.)
NEW QUESTION 19
Which feature or protocol determines whether the QOS on the network is sufficient to support IP services?
C. IP SLA
NEW QUESTION 20
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
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Are you preparing the CCNA 200-301 exam? Or are you wondering what questions are like in CCNA 200-301 exam? It is the right time for you to read this blog! You won’t miss it! SPOTO has collected some updated questions from CCNA 200-301 exam for you. Let’s get started.1. Which purpose does a northbound API server in a controller-based networking architecture? A. Communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware.
B. Reports device errors to a controller.
C. Generates statistics for network hardware and traffic.
D. Facilitates communication between the controller and the applications. Answer: D 2. How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment? A. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.
B. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management.
C. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management.
D. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management. Answer: C 3. What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two.) A. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.
B. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network.
C. The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic.
D. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network.
E. It requires that some servers, virtual machines, and network gear reside on the Internet. Answer: AD 4. What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management? A. It supports numerous extensibility options, including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.
B. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements in a brownfield deployment.
C. It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.
D. It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode. Answer: A 5. Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address? A. 2000::/3
D. FF00::/8 Answer: D 6. What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated? A. The seventh bit of original MAC address of the interface is inverted.
B. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value.
C. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface.
D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification. Answer: A 7. What is the difference regrading reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
C. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol. Answer: C 8. Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1, which configuration accomplishes this task? A. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route default-route 192.168.1.1
B. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1
C. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
D. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1 Answer: B 9. Which function dose the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. Allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts.
B. Provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network.
C. Ensues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing.
D. Enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts. Answer: A 10. A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network, which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped? A. Device(config)# lldp run
B. Device(config)# cdp run
C. Device(config)# cdp enable
D. Device(config)# flow-sampler-map topology Answer: A 11.How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets? A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data; UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.
B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once; UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing.
C. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake.
D. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. Answer: B 12. Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server? A. ntp master
B. ntp sever
C. ntp authenticate
D. ntp peer Answer: A 13. Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two.) A. IPv6 address
B. OSPF process ID
C. OSPF MD5 authentication key
D. OSPF stub flag
E. OSPF area Answer: BE 14. What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two.) A. The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.
B. The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them.
C. The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses.
D. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses.
E. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically. Answer: DE 15. What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode? A. FlexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC.
B. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured.
C. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AF to the WLC.
D. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP. Answer: B 16. By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table? A. It uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric.
B. It uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router.
C. It counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric.
D. It uses a reference bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric. Answer: A 17. What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding? A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.
B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table.
C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN. Answer: C 18. Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.) A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels.
B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.
D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.
E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel. Answer: CE 19. What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.) A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections.
B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding.
C. The data can pass through the cladding.
D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber.
E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections. Answer: BD 20. What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.) A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies.
B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.
C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains.
D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host.
E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions. Answer: AB 21. What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.
B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
C. It provides variable latency.
D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops. Answer: D 22. How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services, and access control? A. Authorization provides access control, and authentication tracks user services.
B. Authentication identifies users, and accounting tracks user services.
C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control.
D. Authorization identifies users, and authentication provides access control. Answer: B 23. Which function does an SNMP agent perform? A. It sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS.
B. It manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network.
C. It coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server.
D. It requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events. Answer: A To be continued…
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- NEW CCNA 200-301 exam dumps
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Cisco certification program would have changed drastically since Feb. 24, 2020. There would be no longer going to be multiple different CCNA exams as well as certifications – only a single, comprehensive exam would be available. 200-301 CCNA would be the new exam’s code and its full name would be the Implementing and Administering Cisco Networking Technologies. Under the current CCNA certification program, there would be multiple concentration exams for dissimilar learning paths. However, under the new rules, the following certifications are going to be replaced by the new CCNA:
CCNA Data Center
CCNA Routing and Switching
CCNA Service Provider
CCDA (Cisco Certified Design Associate)
So, the specialization at the CCNA level would be going away – you would be now able to choose your specialization at the CCNP level. Also, you are required to get yourself enrolled in the study dumps offered by the SPOTO Club, to make sure that you achieve it in a single attempt.
Current CCNA certificates
Your CCNA certification would be remaining active until it reaches its expiration date. After the new program, which has come into effect since, February 2020, your current CCNA certification would be transitioned to an equivalent in the new program. So if you would be having any of the current CCNA certificates, you would be automatically gaining the new CCNA certification.
If you would be working toward a current CCNA certification, you should make sure to complete that you have completed it before Feb 23, 2020. CCNAs who would have their hold on any of the old CCNA exams before the Feb. 24 cut-off date would be receiving automatically the new CCNA credential and a training badge that represents the pre-Feb. 24 concentration the candidate would be completing. So if you would have cleared the CCNA Wireless exam before the aforementioned deadline, you would be gaining the new CCNA credential as well as a CCNA Wireless training badge.
200-301 Exam Overview:
200-301 is considered to be a single exam, which would be consisting of 120 questions. It would be covering a wide range of topics, like routing and switching, security, wireless networking, and even some programming concepts. As with other Cisco certifications, you would be able to take it at any of the Pearson VUE certification centers.
About the new curriculum
The new modules would comprise in the new CCNA curriculum are going to include:
Automation and Programmability – REST APIs, Chef, Puppet, SDN, JSON.
IP Connectivity – OSPFv2, IP routing.
IP Services – NTP, DCHP, SNMP.
Network Access – EtherChannel, VLANs, and trunking.
Network Fundamentals – cabling, routers, switches, IPv4 and IPv6, TCP and UDP
Security Fundamentals – wireless security, VPNs, port security
The optional training program that could be taken at a Cisco academy would be known as Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA). The successful completion of a training course would be able to gain a training badge.
Cisco would have also announced a new certification which is known as called DevNet. The program would be focusing on DevOps, automation, as well as development. It is considered to be aimed at software developers who write network applications or network engineers who would like to cross-train in programming.
There are four levels of this certification:
DevNet Professional Developers
So, you have now gained all the required knowledge about the 200-301exam, and now would be willing to pursue it. If yes! You should get yourself enrolled in the training courses offered at the SPOTO Club to ensure your success.